1. Which of the following quantities is scalar?
2. The electric field at a point due to a positive charge is directed:
3. In wave optics, the phenomenon of interference is based on the principle of:
4. The process of conversion of heat into work in a heat engine is governed by:
5. A car is moving with a constant speed in a circular path. The net force acting on the car is:
6. The universal law of gravitation states that the force between two objects is:
7. The linear momentum of an object is defined as the product of its:
8. A simple pendulum oscillates with a period T. If the length of the pendulum is doubled, the new period will be:
9. The SI unit of electric charge is:
10. Which of the following is an example of a non-conservative force?
11. The energy possessed by an object due to its motion is called:
12. Which of the following is an example of a scalar quantity?
13. The speed of light in a vacuum is approximately:
14. The property of a material to regain its original shape after deformation is called:
15. The principle of conservation of energy states that:
16. The rate of change
17. Which of the following statements is true for a convex lens?
d) It forms a virtual image for objects placed between the lens and the focal point
18. The coefficient of linear expansion is a characteristic property of a:
19. The time period of a simple pendulum is inversely proportional to the:
20. In wave optics, the phenomenon of diffraction is most pronounced when the size of the:
21. The SI unit of power is:
22. A rocket moves forward in space by:
23. The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection according to:
24. Which of the following statements is true for an ideal gas undergoing an isothermal process?
25. The potential difference across a resistor is directly proportional to the:
1. Which of the following substances exhibits the highest melting point?
a) Sodium chloride (NaCl)
b) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
c) Methane (CH4)
d) Water (H2O)
2. The process of adsorption is commonly observed in:
a) Electrolysis
b) Dissolution
c) Heterogeneous catalysis
d) Oxidation-reduction reactions
3. Which of the following compounds is an example of an ionic solid?
a) Ethanol (C2H5OH)
b) Glucose (C6H12O6)
c) Sodium chloride (NaCl)
d) Benzene (C6H6)
4. What is the oxidation state of manganese in potassium permanganate (KMnO4)?
a) +1
b) +3
c) +5
d) +7
5. The rate of a chemical reaction is primarily affected by:
a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) Volume
d) Concentration
6. Which of the following elements belongs to the p-block of the periodic table?
a) Carbon (C)
b) Sodium (Na)
c) Calcium (Ca)
d) Iron (Fe)
7. The coordination number of a central metal ion in a complex is determined by:
a) The total number of ligands
b) The charge on the ligands
c) The size of the ligands
d) The electron configuration of the metal ion
8. Which of the following compounds is an example of a haloalkane?
a) Ethanol (C2H5OH)
b) Methanol (CH3OH)
c) Chloroform (CHCl3)
d) Acetone (CH3COCH3)
9. Heloallerenes are a class of organic compounds that contain:
a) Halogens
b) Helium atoms
c) Allerene functional groups
d) Helium and benzene rings
10. Which of the following statements is true regarding polymers?
a) They are composed of only one type of monomer
b) They are generally low molecular weight compounds
c) They can be classified as either natural or synthetic
d) They do not have any industrial applications
11. Which of the following functional groups is present in an alcohol?
a) -OH
b) -COOH
c) -CHO
d) -NH2
12. Which of the following compounds is an example of a phenol?
a) Acetone (CH3COCH3)
b) Methanol (CH3OH)
c) Phenol (C6H5OH)
d) Ethanol (C2H5OH)
13. The reaction of an aldehyde with an alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst forms:
a) An ester
b) A ketone
c) A carboxylic acid
d) An ether
14. What is the IUPAC name for the compound CH3COCH3?
a) Acetone
b) Acetic acid
c) Acetaldehyde
d) Acetylene
15. Which of the following compounds is an example of a carboxylic acid?
a) Ethanol (C2H5OH)
b) Acetone (CH3COCH
c) Methanoic acid (HCOOH)
d) Benzene (C6H6)
16. Which of the following statements is true regarding organic compounds containing nitrogen?
a) They are generally volatile and have strong odors
b) They are mainly found in inorganic substances
c) They do not participate in any chemical reactions
d) They can exhibit a wide range of functional groups
17. The process of polymerization involves:
a) Breaking down polymers into monomers
b) Combining monomers to form polymers
c) Dissolving polymers in solvents
d) Oxidizing polymers to produce new compounds
18. The molar mass of a polymer is typically:
a) Lower than the molar mass of its monomer
b) Higher than the molar mass of its monomer
c) Equal to the molar mass of its monomer
d) Unrelated to the molar mass of its monomer
19. The addition of a catalyst to a chemical reaction generally affects:
a) The activation energy of the reaction
b) The stoichiometry of the reaction
c) The equilibrium constant of the reaction
d) The rate of the reaction product formation
20. Which of the following is a primary factor influencing the solubility of a solute in a solvent?
a) Temperature
b) Pressure
c) pH
d) Density
21. The process of electrolysis involves:
a) The breakdown of a compound by passing an electric current through it
b) The formation of a compound by passing an electric current through it
c) The mixing of two compounds to form a new compound
d) The conversion of a solid into a liquid state by the application of heat
22. The Arrhenius equation relates the rate constant of a reaction to:
a) The concentration of reactants
b) The temperature of the reaction
c) The pressure of the reaction
d) The volume of the reaction vessel
23. Which of the following is an example of a heterogeneous catalysis process?
a) The reaction between hydrogen and oxygen in the presence of a platinum catalyst
b) The reaction between sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid
c) The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen in the atmosphere
d) The reaction between sodium and chlorine gas to form sodium chloride
24. The process of sublimation involves:
a) The conversion of a solid directly into a gas
b) The conversion of a gas directly into a solid
c) The conversion of a liquid into a gas
d) The conversion of a gas into a liquid
25. Which of the following compounds is an example of a coordination compound?
a) Sodium chloride (NaCl)
b) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
c) Potassium permanganate (KMnO4)
d) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (K4[Fe(CN)6])
BIOLOGY:
1. Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for the evolution of antibiotic resistance in bacteria?
a) Genetic drift
b) Gene flow
c) Mutation
d) Natural selection
2. The primary function of enzymes in biological systems is to:
a) Store genetic information
b) Facilitate cell signaling
c) Act as catalysts for chemical reactions
d) Transport molecules across cell membranes
3. Which of the following biomolecules is composed of nucleotides?
a) Proteins
b) Carbohydrates
c) Lipids
d) Nucleic acids
4. The cell cycle consists of several phases. Which phase is responsible for DNA replication?
a) G1 phase
b) S phase
c) G2 phase
d) M phase
5. In signal transduction, a common second messenger used in cell signaling is:
a) cAMP (cyclic adenosine monophosphate)
b) ATP (adenosine triphosphate)
c) DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)
d) RNA (ribonucleic acid)
6. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of prokaryotic cells?
a) Presence of a nucleus
b) Membrane-bound organelles
c) Circular DNA
d) Complex multicellular organization
7. Which of the following processes is responsible for the production of ATP in oxidative phosphorylation?
a) Glycolysis
b) Citric acid cycle
c) Electron transport chain
d) Fermentation
8. Which of the following is an example of a coupled reaction?
a) Photosynthesis
b) Cellular respiration
c) DNA replication
d) ATP hydrolysis
9. Which of the following is NOT a component of the central dogma of molecular biology?
a) Replication
b) Transcription
c) Translation
d) Recombination
10. Which of the following is an example of post-translational modification?
a) Alternative splicing
b) DNA methylation
c) Protein folding
d) mRNA transcription
11. Antibodies are produced by which type of immune cells?
a) B cells
b) T cells
c) Natural killer cells
d) Macrophages
12. Which of the following is an example of innate immunity?
a) Antibody production
b) T cell activation
c) Phagocytosis by macrophages
d) Memory response
13. Which of the following is the function of restriction enzymes in recombinant DNA technology?
a) Amplify DNA fragments
b) Ligase DNA fragments together
c) Cut DNA at specific recognition sequences
d) Introduce foreign DNA into host cells
14. What technique is commonly used to amplify specific DNA sequences in the laboratory?
a) Southern blotting
b) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
c) Gel electrophoresis
d) DNA sequencing
15. Which of the following is an application of transgenic animals?
a) Human gene therapy
b) Crop improvement
c) Disease diagnosis
d) Environmental monitoring
16. What is the primary purpose of microscopy in biological research?
a) DNA sequencing
b) Visualizing cellular structures
c) Protein purification
d) RNA isolation
17. Which of the following techniques is used to separate molecules based on their charge and size?
a) Chromatography
b) Centrifugation
c) Electrophoresis
d) Microscopy
18. The study of the interactions between organisms and their environment is known as:
a) Genetics
b) Evolution
c) Ecology
d) Biotechnology
19. What is the term used to describe the variety of different species in an ecosystem?
a)Biodiversity
b) Speciation
c) Biogeography
d) Ecosystem
20. Which of the following is an example of a conservation biology strategy?
a) Habitat destruction
b) Species reintroduction
c) Genetic engineering
d) Overfishing
21. Which of the following pollutants is responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer?
a) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
b) Sulfur dioxide (SO2)
c) Nitrogen oxide (NOx)
d) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
22. Which of the following techniques is used to determine the molecular weight of proteins?
a) Gel electrophoresis
b) PCR amplification
c) DNA sequencing
d) Southern blotting
23. The pH of a solution is a measure of its:
a) Concentration of hydrogen ions
b) Concentration of hydroxide ions
c) Electronegativity
d) Molecular weight
24. Which of the following is NOT a function of nucleic acids?
a) Storage of genetic information
b) Enzymatic activity
c) Transmission of genetic information
d) Protein synthesis
25. Which of the following is an example of a vitamin?
a) Glucose
b) Ribose
c) Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C)
d) Palmitic acid
FORENSIC SCIENCE:
1. Which of the following is NOT a principle of crime scene management?
a) Document the scene
b) Contaminate the evidence
c) Secure and protect the scene
d) Conduct a systematic search
2. Which type of evidence is subjective and based on personal belief or opinion?
a) Circumstantial evidence
b) Direct evidence
c) Expert evidence
d) Hearsay evidence
3. Which law governs the admissibility of scientific evidence in court?
a) Forensic Evidence Act
b) Daubert Standard
c) Frye Standard
d) Evidence Code
4. What is the study of the causes, consequences, and prevention of criminal behavior called?
a) Forensic science
b) Criminology
c) Criminalistics
d) Criminal justice
5. Which branch of forensic science deals with the analysis of firearms and ammunition?
a) Forensic entomology
b) Forensic odontology
c) Forensic ballistics
d) Forensic toxicology
6. Which of the following is an example of a physical evidence?
a) Witness testimony
b) Confession statement
c) Fingerprints
d) Expert opinion
7. The process of collecting, packaging, and preserving physical evidence is known as:
a) Chain of custody
b) Forensic analysis
c) Evidence documentation
d) Evidence preservation
8. Which of the following is NOT a type of evidence commonly found at a crime scene?
a) DNA evidence
b) Trace evidence
c) Eyewitness testimony
d) Toolmarks
9. In forensic science, the term "Locard's Exchange Principle" refers to:
a) The transfer of evidence between people
b) The use of DNA analysis in criminal investigations
c) The role of forensic experts in court proceedings
d) The process of securing a crime scene
10. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a valid search warrant?
a) Specific description of the location to be searched
b) Probable cause for the search
c) Signed by a judge or magistrate
d) Issued after the crime has been committed
11. Which branch of forensic science deals with the study of insects and their relation to criminal investigations?
a) Forensic anthropology
b) Forensic entomology
c) Forensic psychology
d) Forensic botany
12. The process of using dental records to identify human remains is known as:
a) Forensic odontology
b) Forensic anthropology
c) Forensic entomology
d) Forensic serology
13. Which of the following is NOT a step in the process of collecting DNA evidence?
a) Collection
b) Preservation
c) Analysis
d) Interpretation
14. Which of the following is a primary goal of criminal profiling?
a) Identifying the type of weapon used in a crime
b) Determining the time of death in a homicide case
c) Developing a description of the offender based on evidence
d) Collecting and analyzing fingerprints from a crime scene
15. Which of the following is NOT a principle of crime scene photography?
a) Capture overall and close-up photographs
b) Use a flash to enhance lighting conditions
c) Document the scene before any evidence is disturbed
d) Take photographs from different angles and perspectives
16. Which of the following is NOT a category of physical evidence?
a) Biological evidence
b) Trace evidence
c) Documentary evidence
d) Impressions evidence
17. The study of the chemical composition of illegal drugs and their effects on the body is known as:
a) Forensic anthropology
b) Forensic toxicology
c) Forensic entomology
d) Forensic serology
18. Which law regulates the collection and use of DNA evidence in criminal investigations?
a) Criminal Procedure Code
b) DNA Evidence Act
c) Forensic Science Act
d) Evidence Code
19. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of reliable eyewitness testimony?
a) Confidence of the witness
b) Emotional state of the witness
c) Distance between the witness and the event
d) Time of day when the event occurred
20. Which branch of forensic science deals with the study of handwriting and document analysis?
a) Forensic anthropology
b) Forensic entomology
c) Forensic serology
d) Questioned documents examination
21. The study of the remains of plants and animals to determine their age and environmental conditions is known as:
a) Forensic entomology
b) Forensic botany
c) Forensic anthropology
d) Forensic serology
22. Which of the following is NOT a method of fingerprint collection?
a) Dusting
b) Lifting
c) Swabbing
d) Tasting
23. Which branch of forensic science deals with the analysis of body fluids and tissues for the presence of drugs and toxins?
a) Forensic entomology
b) Forensic anthropology
c) Forensic toxicology
d) Forensic odontology
24. The study of bones and skeletal remains to determine the identity and cause of death is known as:
a) Forensic anthropology
b) Forensic entomology
c) Forensic botany
d) Forensic toxicology
25. Which of the following is an example of trace evidence?
a) Footprints
b) DNA
c) Firearms
d) Eyewitness testimony
